📰 Daily Current Affairs Notes — Friday, July 31, 2026

Sources scanned: PIB India, The Hindu, Indian Express, PRS India, RBI, NITI Aayog, and Chhattisgarh State Government portals.

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Supreme Court Stays Delhi HC Order Declaring National Stock Exchange a ‘Public Authority’ Under RTI Act — [Polity & Governance: GS Paper II]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Supreme Court of India has stayed an order passed by a Division Bench of the Delhi High Court that declared the National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) a “public authority” under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005. The High Court had previously observed that if a body is owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the appropriate government, or performs public functions of a statutory nature, it would qualify as a public authority under the transparency law.

The stay was granted following an appeal challenging the High Court’s interpretation regarding the degree of state control and funding over market infrastructure institutions (MIIs). The outcome of this case will set a significant legal precedent regarding the transparency obligations of financial market institutions, regulatory bodies, and quasi-public entities in India.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: It touches upon the interpretation of Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, defining the balance between public accountability and procedural autonomy of financial market infrastructure bodies.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Statutory definitions under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (Section 2(h)), definition of Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs), and jurisdiction of High Courts vs. Supreme Court.

* GS Paper II: Statutory Bodies, RTI Act Implementation, Transparency & Accountability in Governance, and Judicial Review.

* Essay: Transparency in economic institutions as a pillar of good governance.

* Interview: Whether quasi-regulatory financial entities handling public wealth should be brought under the RTI framework.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Provisions of Right to Information Act, 2005, and basic constitutional/statutory definitions.

* Mains Paper: Paper III (Constitution & Public Administration) — Governance, Transparency, RTI Act, and Judicial Judgments.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Transparency initiatives in Chhattisgarh State Information Commission and local public utility bodies.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005 (definition of Public Authority).

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Supreme Court of India, Delhi High Court, National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. Under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, which of the following can be designated as a “Public Authority”?

1. Any body established or constituted by or under the Constitution.

2. Any body established by any law made by Parliament or State Legislature.

3. Non-Governmental Organizations substantially financed directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation: Section 2(h) explicitly includes bodies created by the Constitution, Parliamentary/State laws, government notifications, as well as bodies owned, controlled, or substantially financed (including NGOs) by the government.

2. Consider the following statements regarding Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) in India:

1. Stock exchanges, depositories, and clearing corporations are classified as MIIs.

2. MIIs are regulated directly by the Ministry of Finance without SEBI oversight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: MIIs include stock exchanges, depositories, and clearing corporations, but they are regulated directly by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not directly by the Finance Ministry.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. “The expanding definition of ‘Public Authority’ under the RTI Act, 2005 is essential for financial transparency, yet it requires a delicate balance with operational autonomy.” Discuss in the context of recent judicial pronouncements regarding market infrastructure institutions. (150 words / 10 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `RTI Act 2005` `Public Authority` `Supreme Court` `National Stock Exchange` `Governance`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Section 2(h) and Section 8 (Exemptions) of RTI Act, 2005

* Role and powers of Central Information Commission (CIC)

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Supreme Court Clarifies Stance on Post-Facto Environmental Clearances — [Environment & Ecology: GS Paper III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Supreme Court of India addressed the issue of post-facto environmental clearances granted to industrial and infrastructure projects under the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) framework. The apex court clarified that its conditional allowance of ex-post-facto approvals in specific exceptional scenarios must not be interpreted or misconstrued as a general endorsement or blanket amnesty scheme for environmental violators.

The Court reiterated that prior environmental clearance remains a fundamental statutory requirement under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Granting post-facto approvals routinely derogates the precautionary principle and the principle of sustainable development, which form integral parts of Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: Post-facto environmental clearances have been a bone of contention between industrial development and environmental conservation. The SC ruling reinforces environmental jurisprudence and strict EIA compliance.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2006, Precautionary Principle, and Polluter Pays Principle.

* GS Paper III: Environmental Pollution and Degradation, EIA process, Sustainable Development, and Environmental Legislation.

* Essay: Environmental Protection vs. Industrial Growth: Finding the Equilibrium.

* Interview: How administration can enforce strict environmental compliance without stifling economic investment.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Environment Protection Act provisions, National Green Tribunal (NGT), and Forest Conservation laws.

* Mains Paper: Paper IV (Science, Technology & Environment) — Environmental Conservation, Pollution Control Laws, and EIA procedures in mining and heavy industries.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Industrial expansion in Hasdeo Arand, Korba, and Bhilai, requiring strict adherence to prior environmental clearances.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Article 21 (Right to Clean Environment), Article 48A (Directive Principles), Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty).

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, EIA Notification 2006, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. With reference to the ‘Precautionary Principle’ in Indian environmental jurisprudence, consider the following statements:

1. It mandates that where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation.

2. It was explicitly incorporated into Indian law through a constitutional amendment in 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: Statement 1 accurately defines the Precautionary Principle. Statement 2 is incorrect as the principle was recognized through judicial precedents by the Supreme Court (e.g., Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum case) interpreting Article 21, not via a specific constitutional amendment.

2. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India is statutorily backed by which of the following acts?

(A) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

(B) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

(C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(D) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

Correct Answer: (C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Explanation: EIA notifications are issued under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. “Ex-post-facto environmental clearances dilute the core mandate of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.” Critically analyze this statement in light of recent Supreme Court rulings and the imperative of sustainable development. (250 words / 15 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Environmental Impact Assessment` `Precautionary Principle` `Supreme Court` `Sustainable Development` `Environment Protection Act 1986`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* EIA Notification 2006 vs Draft EIA 2020 changes

* National Green Tribunal (NGT) powers and landmark judgments

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Standing Committee of NBWL Recommends Pygmy Hog for Critically Endangered Status Upgrade — [Environment & Ecology: GS Paper III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has officially recommended adding the Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania) to the updated priority list of critically endangered species requiring intensive species recovery programs. The decision aims to catalyze targeted conservation funding, habitat restoration, and captive breeding initiatives across its native grasslands in North-East India.

The Pygmy Hog is the world’s smallest and rarest wild pig species, functioning as an essential indicator species for the health of tall wet grasslands. Once widespread across the southern foothills of the Himalayas, its population drastically shrank due to habitat destruction, agricultural encroachment, and uncontrolled grassland burning, limiting its viable wild populations primarily to Manas National Park in Assam and adjacent reintroduction sites.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: PYQ trend analysis shows high frequency of questions on endangered fauna, NBWL decisions, habitat preferences, and National Parks in North-East India.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Pygmy Hog habitat, IUCN Status (Critically Endangered), Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972, Manas National Park, and National Board for Wildlife (NBWL).

* GS Paper III: Conservation, Biodiversity Management, Wildlife Protection Act, and Ecosystem Services.

* Essay: Conserving Indicator Species as Guardians of Ecosystem Resilience.

* Interview: Wildlife corridor management and balancing human livelihood with grassland conservation.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Wildlife Protection Act schedules, NBWL composition (chaired by Prime Minister), and endangered species mapping.

* Mains Paper: Paper IV (Science & Environment) — Biodiversity Conservation, Endangered Flora and Fauna, and Protected Area Networks.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Biodiversity conservation initiatives in Indravati National Park, Kanger Valley National Park, and Achanakmar Tiger Reserve.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory body constituted under Section 5A of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (chaired by the Prime Minister).

Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania*), Manas National Park (Assam), IUCN Red List Status: Critically Endangered, CITES Appendix I.

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania):

1. It is the world’s smallest wild pig species and is endemic to tall grassland habitats.

2. In India, its primary wild population is localized in and around Manas National Park.

3. It is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pygmy Hog is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ (not Vulnerable) on the IUCN Red List.

2. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)?

(A) Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(B) Prime Minister of India

(C) Director General of Forests

(D) Secretary, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Correct Answer: (B) Prime Minister of India

Explanation: The Prime Minister serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the NBWL, while the Environment Minister serves as the Vice-Chairperson.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. Highlight the ecological significance of grassland ecosystems in India. Examine the threats faced by grassland-dependent fauna like the Pygmy Hog and suggest comprehensive conservation measures. (150 words / 10 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Pygmy Hog` `NBWL` `Manas National Park` `Critically Endangered` `Biodiversity Conservation`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Pygmy Hog Conservation Programme (PHCP)

* Wildlife Protection Amendment Act, 2022 schedule rationalization

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IN-SPACe Formulates Re-Entry Guidelines for Spacecraft and Upper Stages — [Science & Technology: GS Paper III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) has issued formal regulatory guidelines governing the controlled re-entry and de-orbiting of spacecraft and spent upper launch vehicle stages for non-government entities (NGEs) and private space operators in India. The guidelines aim to prevent space debris accumulation and manage terrestrial impact risks in alignment with global space sustainability standards.

Under the new framework, space operators must plan deliberate, controlled atmospheric re-entries where specific propulsion manoeuvres are utilized to target designated unpopulated oceanic zones (such as the South Pacific Ocean Uninhabited Area). For missions where controlled re-entry is technically unfeasible, strict casualty risk thresholds (less than 1 in 10,000) and uncontrolled de-orbit timelines must be verified prior to launch authorization.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: As India expands its commercial space sector post the Space Policy 2023, establishing space situational awareness and space debris mitigation guidelines is critical for international compliance and orbital safety.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Mandate of IN-SPACe, ISRO, Space Policy 2023, Kessler Syndrome, Space Debris Mitigation Guidelines of UNCOPUOS, and Project NETRA.

* GS Paper III: Awareness in the field of Space, Technology Transfer, Commercialization of Space, and International Space Treaties.

* Essay: Responsible Space Operations: Balancing Commercial Innovation with Orbital Sustainability.

* Interview: Role of private sector in space exploration and regulatory challenges faced by IN-SPACe.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Roles of IN-SPACe, ISRO, and NewSpace India Limited (NSIL).

* Mains Paper: Paper IV (Science and Technology) — Space Technology Development in India and applications of satellite technology.

* Chhattisgarh Special: General awareness of national science policies and technological infrastructure.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: IN-SPACe established in 2020 as an single-window autonomous agency under Department of Space (DOS).

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Controlled Re-entry, Atmospheric Friction De-orbiting, UN Outer Space Treaty (1967), Space Policy 2023, Project NETRA (Network for space object Tracking and Analysis).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. Consider the following statements regarding IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre):

1. It functions as an autonomous single-window nodal agency under the Department of Space.

2. Its primary mandate is to regulate and permit space activities of private entities in India.

3. It has replaced ISRO as India’s premier space research organization.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. ISRO remains India’s premier R&D space agency; IN-SPACe acts as a promoter, enabler, and regulator for non-governmental entities.

2. What is ‘Kessler Syndrome’, frequently mentioned in space technology discourse?

(A) The degradation of satellite solar panels due to solar flares.

(B) A self-sustaining cascading collision cascade of orbital debris in Low Earth Orbit.

(C) The atmospheric loss of planetary gases in exoplanets.

(D) The communication blackout experienced during spacecraft re-entry.

Correct Answer: (B) A self-sustaining cascading collision cascade of orbital debris in Low Earth Orbit.

Explanation: Kessler Syndrome describes a scenario where the density of objects in Low Earth Orbit is high enough that collisions produce more debris, causing a cascade.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. With the rapid proliferation of commercial satellite constellations, space debris poses a severe threat to sustainable space activities. Examine how the guidelines issued by IN-SPACe align with global space sustainability norms. (150 words / 10 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `IN-SPACe` `Space Debris` `Re-entry Guidelines` `ISRO` `Space Sustainability`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Indian Space Policy 2023 provisions

* UN Outer Space Treaty 1967 and Liability Convention 1972

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IMD Re-emphasizes Cloudburst Definition Criteria Amid Upper Assam Monsoon Deluge — [Geography & Disaster Management: GS Paper I & III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

In response to severe flood situations and intense precipitation in Upper Assam and adjoining hilly catchments of North-East India, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) released a technical clarification regarding the scientific classification of extreme rainfall events. The IMD refuted localized reports labelling recent localized flash floods as “cloudbursts”, outlining the strict meteorological criteria required for an event to be designated as such.

According to the IMD, a cloudburst is defined strictly as a localized weather phenomenon characterized by intense rainfall exceeding 100 mm per hour over a geographically limited area of approximately 20 to 30 square kilometres. High-intensity rainfall events that do not meet both the temporal intensity threshold and spatial limitation are categorized under standard extreme rainfall events (e.g., Extremely Heavy Rainfall: >204.4 mm in 24 hours) caused by monsoonal troughs or oro-graphic uplift.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: Meteorological terminology is frequently tested in Geography Prelims and Disaster Management Mains. Distinguishing between general heavy rainfall, flash floods, and cloudbursts is vital for accurate policy formulation.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Cloudburst criteria (>100 mm/hr over 20-30 sq km), Cumulonimbus cloud dynamics, Orographic rain, Flash floods, and IMD rainfall warnings.

* GS Paper I: Physical Geography — Climate dynamics, Monsoons, Atmospheric instability.

* GS Paper III: Disaster and Disaster Management — Flash floods, Early Warning Systems, and Landslides.

* Interview: Climate change-induced localized extreme weather events and urban/rural disaster preparedness.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Indian Monsoon features, IMD classification, and physical geography parameters.

* Mains Paper: Paper IV (Applied Science & Environment) / Paper V (Geography of India & CG) — Monsoon dynamics, floods, and natural disaster management in hilly/plateau regions.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Flash flood vulnerability in Bastar plateau and northern hilly zones (Surguja) during monsoon peaks.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Cloudburst Threshold: $\ge 100\text{ mm/hour}$ over $20\text{–}30\text{ km}^2$.

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: India Meteorological Department (IMD), Cumulonimbus clouds, Upper Assam catchments, National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), which of the following criteria must be satisfied to officially classify a precipitation event as a ‘Cloudburst’?

(A) Rainfall exceeding 50 mm in 24 hours over an entire district.

(B) Rainfall of 100 mm or more per hour over an area of about 20 to 30 square kilometres.

(C) Continuous rainfall for 72 hours accompanied by severe cyclonic winds.

(D) Occurrence of hail and extreme rainfall exceeding 250 mm in 12 hours over coastal regions.

Correct Answer: (B) Rainfall of 100 mm or more per hour over an area of about 20 to 30 square kilometres.

Explanation: The official definition requires precipitation rate $\ge 100$ mm/hour localized over a 20-30 sq km area.

2. Which cloud type is primarily responsible for cloudburst phenomena due to its intense vertical convection currents?

(A) Cirrocumulus

(B) Altostratus

(C) Cumulonimbus

(D) Stratocumulus

Correct Answer: (C) Cumulonimbus

Explanation: Cumulonimbus clouds possess intense updrafts that hold large volumes of water droplets until sudden collapse occurs, resulting in a cloudburst.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. Differentiate between a cloudburst and general extremely heavy rainfall. Discuss the physical mechanism behind cloudbursts and suggest structural and non-structural disaster mitigation measures for vulnerable hilly terrains in India. (250 words / 15 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Cloudburst` `IMD` `Monsoon` `Disaster Management` `Cumulonimbus`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) network expansion

* NDMA Guidelines on Management of Landslides and Floods

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Interstate River Water Dispute Escalates: Tamil Nadu to Move Supreme Court Over Cauvery Allocation — [Polity & Governance: GS Paper II]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Tamil Nadu State Government announced its decision to approach the Supreme Court of India seeking judicial enforcement of its designated share of Cauvery river water from upper-riparian Karnataka. The decision comes following recommendations issued by the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) regarding distress water-sharing protocols amid deficits in reservoir storage levels.

The upper-riparian state of Karnataka faced local protests from farming communities in Nanjangud and T. Narasipura against directives to release water, citing drought-like conditions within its own basin districts. Tamil