📰 Daily Current Affairs Notes — Wednesday, July 29, 2026

Sources scanned: PIB India, The Hindu, Indian Express, PRS India, RBI, NITI Aayog, and Chhattisgarh State Government portals.

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Supreme Court Quashes Retrospective Environmental Clearances — [Environment & Ecology: GS Paper III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Supreme Court of India has quashed the Union Environment Ministry’s 2021 Office Memorandum (OM) that granted the Central and State government authorities the power to issue ex-post-facto (retrospective) environmental clearances to industrial and infrastructure projects. The bench ruled that ex-post-facto environmental clearances derogate from the core principles of environmental jurisprudence and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

The Supreme Court emphasized that permitting ex-post-facto clearances allows project proponents to operate illegally without prior environmental impact assessment, leading to irreversible ecological damage. However, the apex court clarified that in exceptional circumstances and strictly in the larger public interest, the Centre may introduce a limited, time-bound amnesty scheme, provided it is executed through a valid statutory notification rather than an executive Office Memorandum.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: This landmark judgment reinforces the Precautionary Principle and the Sustainable Development doctrine in Indian environmental law by striking down administrative shortcuts that bypass mandatory prior Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA).

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2006, Precautionary Principle, and Supreme Court rulings on environmental jurisprudence.

* GS Paper III: Environmental Conservation, Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), and Disaster Management.

* Essay: Balancing Economic Growth with Ecological Integrity: Law as a Tool for Sustainable Development.

* Interview: Administrative enforcement vs. environmental regulation; ethical duties of regulatory bodies in granting clearances.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986, State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) role in Chhattisgarh.

* Mains Paper: Paper 5 (Economy & Environment) – Environmental monitoring, regulation of mining and industrial units in forest-rich states like Chhattisgarh.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Highly relevant for mining and industrial expansion in Hasdeo, Korba, and Dantewada, where strict prior EIA compliance is required before project execution.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Article 21 (Right to a clean environment), Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy), Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty).

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Environment (Protection) Act 1986; Office Memorandum of July 2021 quashed on July 29, 2026.

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. With reference to Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 provides the statutory framework for issuing EIA notifications in India.

2. The Supreme Court has ruled that ex-post-facto (retrospective) environmental clearances can be routinely issued through executive Office Memorandums.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as EIA notifications are promulgated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court quashed executive OMs granting retrospective environmental clearances, holding that prior assessment is mandatory.

2. The ‘Precautionary Principle’ in environmental jurisprudence implies that:

(A) Development projects can proceed without environmental approval if economic gains are high.

(B) Lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation.

(C) Ex-post-facto clearances can cure all previous illegalities committed by industrial projects.

(D) Environmental clearances are valid indefinitely without periodic review.

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Precautionary Principle dictates that where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty should not delay preventive action.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. “Ex-post-facto environmental clearances undermine the statutory framework of environmental governance in India.” Examine this statement in light of the recent Supreme Court judgment and discuss its implications for sustainable industrial development. (250 words / 15 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Environmental Impact Assessment` `Supreme Court Judgment` `Environment Protection Act 1986` `Ex-Post-Facto Clearance` `Precautionary Principle`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* EIA Notification 2006 vs Draft EIA 2020 provisions

* National Green Tribunal (NGT) powers and jurisdiction

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CAFE-III Draft Norms Introduce Special Recognition for Biofuels and Ethanol Vehicles — [Economy & Environment: GS Paper III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Union Government has issued the draft guidelines for Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) Phase-III norms, incorporating special weightage and recognition for ethanol-blended and biofuel-powered passenger vehicles. The CAFE-III draft framework aims to incentivize automobile manufacturers to accelerate the production of flex-fuel vehicles, hybrid powertrains, and high-blend ethanol automobiles alongside Electric Vehicles (EVs).

Under the proposed CAFE-III guidelines, vehicle manufacturers will receive favorable compliance scoring for integrating ethanol (E20 and higher blends) and compressed bio-gas (CBG) systems. This measure is designed to reduce India’s crude oil import dependency, lower tailpipe carbon emissions, and meet national decarbonization targets established under the National Policy on Biofuels.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: CAFE norms set fleet-wide fuel efficiency standards for automakers. Integrating biofuels into CAFE-III creates a dual economic-environmental synergy by driving decarbonization while strengthening agricultural linkages through ethanol feedstocks.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: CAFE Norms, Ethanol Blending Program (E20), National Policy on Biofuels, Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

* GS Paper III: Energy security, Indian Economy (Import Substitution), Infrastructure, and Environmental Pollution mitigation.

* Essay: Bioenergy and Green Mobility: Fueling India’s Economic and Environmental Future.

* Interview: Balancing electric vehicle adoption with biofuel transition in developing agricultural economies.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Ethanol plant projects in Chhattisgarh (e.g., Kabirdham/Bhoramdeo bio-ethanol plant), Biofuel policy targets.

* Mains Paper: Paper 5 (Chhattisgarh Economy & Industry) – Agri-based industrial development, paddy-to-ethanol diversification.

* Chhattisgarh Special: High relevance to Chhattisgarh’s surplus paddy production and state incentives for setting up grain-based and sugarcane-based ethanol distilleries.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: E20 Target (20% ethanol blending in petrol), CAFE Phase-III compliance timeline.

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Ministry of Power / Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms in India are primarily aimed at:

(A) Regulating the maximum retail price of commercial fuels.

(B) Improving the overall fuel efficiency of road vehicles to reduce fuel consumption and carbon emissions.

(C) Mandating equal production ratios of diesel and petrol engines for all car manufacturers.

(D) Eliminating fossil fuel usage in public transport by 2030.

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: CAFE norms mandate standard corporate average fuel consumption targets across a manufacturer’s vehicle fleet to reduce overall carbon dioxide emissions and improve energy efficiency.

2. With reference to biofuels in India, consider the following:

1. CAFE-III draft guidelines give specific weightage to ethanol and biofuel-powered vehicles.

2. Grain-based and sugarcane-based feedstocks both contribute to India’s ethanol blending targets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)

Explanation: Both statements are correct. CAFE-III explicitly recognizes biofuel/ethanol vehicles, and India’s ethanol policy permits feedstocks from sugarcane juice, molasses, as well as surplus grains.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. How do Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) Phase-III norms contribute to India’s dual objectives of energy security and climate change mitigation? Discuss the role of biofuel integration in achieving these goals. (150 words / 10 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `CAFE-III Norms` `Biofuels` `Ethanol Blending` `Energy Security` `Automotive Sector`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* National Policy on Biofuels 2018 (and its 2022 amendments)

* Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME) Scheme

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RBI Exchange Rate Assessment and Rupee Valuation Dynamics — [Economy: GS Paper III]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued an analytical perspective regarding foreign exchange dynamics, indicating that the Indian Rupee (INR) remains fundamental-backed and structurally resilient despite facing recent depreciation pressures against the U.S. Dollar. The domestic currency recorded trading levels near ₹95.77 per USD in early interbank trade amid fluctuating global crude oil prices, foreign institutional investment (FII) equity flows, and geopolitical friction in West Asia.

The RBI highlighted that evaluation metrics, including the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER), indicate the Rupee is aligned with underlying economic fundamentals rather than speculative distortion. The central bank reiterated its policy stance that foreign exchange market intervention is aimed solely at curbing excessive volatility and anchoring market expectations, rather than targeting a specific nominal exchange rate level.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: Exchange rate management directly impacts inflation, import costs (especially crude oil), current account balance, and foreign portfolio investment stability in the Indian economy.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER), Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER), Foreign Exchange Reserves composition, RBI market operations.

* GS Paper III: Indian Economy, External Sector, Exchange Rate Management, Inflation Control, and RBI Monetary Policy.

* Essay: Global Macroeconomic Turbulence and the Resilience of the Indian Rupee.

* Interview: How RBI balances export competitiveness with import inflation while managing exchange volatility.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Foreign Exchange Reserve concepts, basics of RBI exchange rate management.

* Mains Paper: Paper 5 (Indian Economy) – Foreign Trade, Exchange Rate Determination, External Debt, and Inflationary Pressures.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Impact of currency exchange fluctuations on mineral exports (steel, aluminum, iron ore) from Chhattisgarh to global markets.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: REER (36-currency trade-weighted basket), NEER.

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Reserve Bank of India Bulletin, Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) of a country’s currency measures:

(A) The direct nominal value of the currency against the US Dollar only.

(B) The weighted average of a nation’s currency relative to an index of major foreign currencies, adjusted for inflation differentials.

(C) The total foreign currency reserves held by the central bank divided by domestic M3 money supply.

(D) The statutory interest rate differential between the domestic central bank and the US Federal Reserve.

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: REER is the inflation-adjusted weighted average of a country’s currency relative to a basket of major currencies, indicating relative trade competitiveness.

2. Consider the following statements regarding RBI’s foreign exchange policy:

1. The RBI maintains a fixed exchange rate regime linked to a fixed basket of gold and US Dollars.

2. RBI interventions in the forex market are primarily targeted at containing extreme volatility rather than defending a specific exchange rate level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: India follows a managed floating exchange rate system where market forces determine the rate, and RBI intervenes only to smooth excessive volatility.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. Explain the concepts of Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER). How does exchange rate volatility affect India’s current account deficit and macroeconomic stability? (250 words / 15 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Reserve Bank of India` `Indian Rupee` `REER and NEER` `Exchange Rate Volatility` `External Sector`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Managed Float Exchange Rate Regime in India

* RBI’s Foreign Exchange Reserve Buffers and Import Cover

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Legal and Administrative Framework for Non-Lethal Crowd Control Measures — [Internal Security & Governance: GS Paper III / GS Paper II]

#### 1. The Core News Report

Recent public demonstrations and marches in the National Capital region have renewed public and legal debate regarding the standard operating procedures (SOPs) governing non-lethal crowd control and force deployment by central armed police forces, including the Rapid Action Force (RAF). Central law enforcement authorities reaffirmed that strict guidelines regulate force proportionality when dispersing unlawful assemblies under procedural criminal law.

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 (formerly sections under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973), executive magistrates and police officers are empowered to command an unlawful assembly to disperse. However, standard procedures mandate a clear hierarchy of force application—starting from verbal warnings, water cannons, tear gas, and non-lethal physical restraints—to minimize injury and uphold fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 19 and 21 of the Constitution.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: Maintains the critical balance between public order management, constitutional rights of peaceful assembly, and state compliance with human rights standards during civil unrest.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Statutory provisions for dispersal of unlawful assemblies under BNSS, 2023 / CrPC, Article 19(1)(b), Article 21, and Police Reform guidelines.

* GS Paper II: Governance, Fundamental Rights, Police Reforms, and Public Order Administration.

* GS Paper III: Internal Security, Security Forces and their Mandates, Rapid Action Force (RAF) deployment.

* Essay: Liberty vs. Order: Navigating Democratic Rights and Public Safety in Modern Governance.

* Interview: Proportionality of force deployment by security personnel during public protests.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Law enforcement agencies, roles of Executive Magistrates in maintaining public peace in districts.

* Mains Paper: Paper 3 (Polity & Governance) and Paper 7 (Internal Security) – Maintenance of law and order, police duties, procedural safeguards during assemblies.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Standard operating protocols followed by Chhattisgarh Police and paramilitary forces in public order and civil disturbance management.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Article 19(1)(b) (Freedom to assemble peaceably without arms), Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023; Rapid Action Force (specialized wing of CRPF established in 1992).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. Under the Indian constitutional framework, the right to assemble peaceably and without arms is subject to reasonable restrictions on which of the following grounds?

1. Sovereignty and integrity of India

2. Public order

3. Moral health of foreign diplomats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (A)

Explanation: Under Article 19(3), the right to peaceful assembly without arms can be restricted by law in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, or public order.

2. The Rapid Action Force (RAF) is a specialized wing of which of the following Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs)?

(A) Border Security Force (BSF)

(B) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)

(C) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)

(D) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Rapid Action Force (RAF) is a specialized wing of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), raised in 1992 to deal with riots, crowd control, and civil unrest.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. Discuss the legal and administrative protocols governing the use of non-lethal weapons for crowd control by law enforcement agencies in India. How can police forces ensure public order while respecting fundamental human rights? (250 words / 15 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Crowd Control` `BNSS 2023` `Rapid Action Force` `Fundamental Rights` `Public Order`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Prakash Singh Judgment on Police Reforms (2006)

* Provisions relating to Unlawful Assembly under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)

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Structural Reforms in Public Competitive Examinations: Radhakrishnan Committee Blueprint — [Governance & Education: GS Paper II]

#### 1. The Core News Report

In the ongoing discussions surrounding the integrity and standard conduct of high-stakes national public competitive examinations like NEET and national testing frameworks, the high-level committee chaired by Dr. K. Radhakrishnan has recommended comprehensive institutional reforms. The proposed framework focuses on eliminating question paper leaks, strengthening technological infrastructure, and establishing end-to-end data security protocols.

Key recommendations include the integration of an Item Response Theory (IRT)-backed question bank, an on-demand multi-tier exam architecture, phased rollouts of exam simulators, and complete audit trails for paper setting, printing, and digital transmission. These measures aim to reform testing bodies, secure logistical chains, and restore candidate trust in public examination systems.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: Ensures meritocracy, transparency, and administrative integrity in public recruitment and entrance examinations, safeguarding the educational rights of millions of students across India.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, High-Level Committees on Examination Reforms, and National Testing Agency (NTA) structure.

* GS Paper II: Governance, Transparency and Accountability, Issues Relating to Education and Human Resources.

* Essay: Preserving the Integrity of Public Examinations: Technological and Administrative Imperatives.

* Interview: Administrative mechanisms required to prevent paper leaks and systemic corruption in state testing bodies.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Public examination legislation, structural reforms in CGPSC and Chhattisgarh State Examination Boards (CG Vyapam).

* Mains Paper: Paper 2 (Public Administration & Governance) – Administrative transparency, institutional accountability, and examination reforms.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Highly applicable to measures adopted by CGPSC and CG Vyapam to maintain transparency, digital evaluation, and leak-proof exam security in Chhattisgarh state tests.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Dr. K. Radhakrishnan Committee on Examination Reforms; Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: National Testing Agency (NTA), Ministry of Education.

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. The Dr. K. Radhakrishnan Committee was constituted by the Union Government primarily to address issues related to:

(A) Restructuring of urban local body financial systems.

(B) Reform and security of national public competitive examination systems.

(C) Review of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) rate slabs.

(D) Digitalization of agricultural land records.

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: The committee headed by former ISRO chief Dr. K. Radhakrishnan was set up to recommend structural, technological, and governance reforms for secure and leak-proof public examinations.

2. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, seeks to prevent unfair means in public examinations conducted by central authorities. Which of the following is/are covered under its purview?

1. Leakage of question papers or answer keys

2. Tampering with computer networks or candidate seating arrangements

3. Unauthorized access to examination databases

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Public Examinations Act, 2024 penalizes paper leaks, answer key leaks, database tampering, hardware manipulation, and unauthorized system access.

• Possible Mains Questions:

1. Vulnerabilities in public examination systems threaten meritocracy and social trust. Evaluate the key recommendations of the Dr. K. Radhakrishnan Committee and suggest administrative measures to secure competitive examinations in India. (250 words / 15 marks)

• Keywords / Tags: `Radhakrishnan Committee` `Examination Reforms` `Public Examinations Act 2024` `NTA` `Governance Transparency`

• Related Topics for Revision:

* Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 provisions

* E-governance tools in examination processing and secure paper delivery

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150 Years of the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) — [Science & Technology / Art & Culture: GS Paper III / GS Paper I]

#### 1. The Core News Report

The Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS), located in Kolkata, marks its 150th anniversary year. Founded in 1876 by the pioneering visionary Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar, IACS stands as Asia’s oldest institute dedicated to fundamental research in basic sciences. It played a pivotal historic role in fostering indigenous scientific inquiry during colonial rule.

It was at the laboratories of IACS that Sir C.V. Raman conducted his ground-breaking research on light scattering, leading to the discovery of the “Raman Effect” in 1928, which earned India its first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930. Today, as an autonomous institution under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, IACS continues to contribute to advanced research in physical, chemical, biological, and material sciences.

#### 2. Examination Analysis (Why it is Important & Exam Relevance)

• Why it is Important: Highlights India’s rich scientific heritage, institutional history, and the foundation of modern scientific research capabilities during the Indian national movement.

• UPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar, Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (1876), Raman Effect, History of Science in Modern India.

* GS Paper I: Modern Indian History – Socio-religious reforms and growth of modern scientific institutions in the 19th and 20th centuries.

* GS Paper III: Science and Technology – Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of technology.

* Essay: Science, Rationalism, and Nation Building: Historical Lessons for Modern India.

* Interview: Role of fundamental basic research vs applied technology research in India’s global scientific standing.

• CGPSC Relevance:

* Prelims: Founders of modern scientific institutions in India, Nobel laureates from India.

* Mains Paper: Paper 1 (History of Modern India) and Paper 4 (Science & Technology) – Growth of modern education and scientific research institutions in British India.

* Chhattisgarh Special: Relevance to developing scientific temperament, research centers, and STEM education infrastructure across state universities in Chhattisgarh.

• Key Facts to Remember:

* Important figures / Constitutional Articles / Committees: Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar (Founder, 1876), Sir C.V. Raman (Raman Effect, Nobel Prize 1930), Article 51A(h) (Scientific temper).

* Reports / Organizations / Schemes / Acts / Locations / Dates: Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (Kolkata), Department of Science & Technology (DST).

• Possible Prelims MCQs:

1. Who among the following established the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) in Kolkata in 1876?

(A) Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose

(B) Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar

(C) Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray

(D) Meghnad Saha

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar founded the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) in July 1876 as the first indigenous institution dedicated to scientific research in India.

2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS):

1. It is Asia’s oldest institute dedicated to research in basic sciences